Sample Quiz for ISTQB Certification
Question 1: What is the primary purpose of a test plan?
A) To document test objectives, scope, and activities
B) To define software development methodology
C) To write detailed test cases
D) To automate testing activities
Explanation: The test plan documents the test objectives, scope, approach, resources, and schedule of intended test activities.
Question 2: Which of the following is a dynamic testing technique?
A) Static code review
B) Exploratory testing
C) Requirement walkthrough
D) Use case diagram analysis
Explanation: Dynamic testing involves executing code. Exploratory testing is a dynamic testing technique performed without predefined test cases.
Question 3: What is equivalence partitioning in software testing?
A) Dividing input data into valid and invalid partitions
B) Writing test cases for every possible input
C) Categorizing bugs based on severity
D) Creating user stories
Explanation: Equivalence partitioning divides inputs into partitions where test cases can represent all inputs within a partition.
Question 4: Which of these is a characteristic of black-box testing?
A) It focuses on inputs and expected outputs
B) It involves knowledge of internal code structure
C) It is only used in unit testing
D) It is synonymous with regression testing
Explanation: Black-box testing evaluates the functionality of a system without examining the internal structure.
Question 5: What is a key advantage of automated testing?
A) Faster execution of repetitive tests
B) Elimination of manual testing entirely
C) Writing test cases automatically
D) Replacing testers with tools
Explanation: Automated testing allows repetitive tests to be executed faster and more consistently than manual testing.
Question 6: What is the purpose of a test oracle?
A) To determine expected outcomes for a test
B) To automate test execution
C) To write test plans
D) To identify performance bottlenecks
Explanation: A test oracle is used to predict expected outcomes to determine if a test has passed or failed.
Question 7: What is a test case?
A) A set of input values, execution conditions, and expected results
B) A report generated after testing
C) A tool used for tracking defects
D) A document outlining test policies
Explanation: A test case is a set of inputs, execution conditions, and expected results to verify a specific requirement or feature.
Question 8: What is regression testing?
A) Testing to confirm that recent changes have not adversely affected existing functionality
B) Testing to evaluate system performance under load
C) Testing to ensure the system meets its business requirements
D) Testing to validate user interface design
Explanation: Regression testing ensures that recent code changes do not negatively impact existing functionality.
Question 9: What is equivalence partitioning?
A) A black-box test design technique that divides input data into partitions
B) A white-box test design technique that uses code coverage
C) A technique to identify system bottlenecks
D) A technique to prioritize test cases
Explanation: Equivalence partitioning is a black-box test technique that divides input data into partitions to reduce the number of test cases needed.
Question 10: What is the difference between verification and validation?
A) Verification checks if the product is built correctly; validation checks if the correct product is built
B) Verification involves testing; validation involves debugging
C) Verification is done after validation
D) They are the same process
Explanation: Verification ensures the product meets specified requirements, while validation ensures the product fulfills its intended purpose.
Question 11: What is the primary purpose of acceptance testing?
A) To determine if the system meets business requirements and is ready for deployment
B) To test individual components
C) To ensure no performance bottlenecks
D) To verify system design
Explanation: Acceptance testing verifies if the system meets business requirements and is ready for delivery to end-users.
Question 12: What is boundary value analysis?
A) A test design technique that focuses on values at boundaries
B) A technique to test backend systems
C) A technique to verify user interface design
D) A method to automate test execution
Explanation: Boundary value analysis is a black-box test design technique focusing on values at the edge of partitions.
Question 13: What is the purpose of static testing?
A) To identify defects without executing the code
B) To validate performance under load
C) To automate regression testing
D) To validate system functionality
Explanation: Static testing involves reviewing code, requirements, or documents to identify defects without executing the software.
Question 14: What is decision table testing?
A) A technique used to test combinations of inputs
B) A tool for tracking defects
C) A technique for testing performance
D) A method for automating tests
Explanation: Decision table testing is used to test combinations of inputs and their corresponding system behavior.
Question 15: What is a defect life cycle?
A) The journey of a defect from detection to closure
B) The process of executing test cases
C) The lifecycle of a software build
D) The phases of the SDLC
Explanation: The defect life cycle outlines the various stages a defect goes through, from detection to resolution and closure.
Question 16: What is exploratory testing?
A) A testing approach where test cases are not pre-defined
B) A technique for testing data boundaries
C) A testing type focused on user interface
D) A method for automating test scripts
Explanation: Exploratory testing involves simultaneous learning, test design, and execution, without predefined test cases.
Question 17: What is the V-model in software testing?
A) A development model where testing activities are planned alongside development
B) A model focused only on functional testing
C) A linear, unidirectional development model
D) A framework for defect management
Explanation: The V-model emphasizes verification and validation, with corresponding testing activities planned for each development phase.
Question 18: What is a test script?
A) A set of instructions for automating a test
B) A document describing test policies
C) A log of executed test cases
D) A tool for managing test environments
Explanation: A test script is a set of instructions written in a scripting or programming language to automate the execution of test cases.
Question 19: What is the primary objective of performance testing?
A) To assess how a system performs under different loads
B) To identify security vulnerabilities
C) To ensure code quality
D) To validate user requirements
Explanation: Performance testing evaluates system performance under various loads to ensure it meets performance criteria.
Question 20: What is pairwise testing?
A) A combinatorial test design technique that tests all possible pairs of inputs
B) A method of testing performed in pairs
C) A technique for testing concurrent systems
D) A type of load testing
Explanation: Pairwise testing is a combinatorial technique that ensures all possible pairs of input values are tested.
Question 21: What is boundary value analysis?
A) A test design technique focusing on boundary values of input domains
B) A method for testing database boundaries
C) A technique for testing output boundaries
D) A technique used only for security testing
Explanation: Boundary value analysis is a test design technique that involves testing values at boundaries of input domains.
Question 22: What is the difference between validation and verification?
A) Validation checks if the product meets user needs; verification checks if it meets specifications
B) Validation is performed by developers; verification is performed by testers
C) Validation is done during development; verification is done after deployment
D) Validation and verification are the same
Explanation: Validation ensures the product meets user needs, while verification ensures the product meets its specifications.
Question 23: What is the purpose of regression testing?
A) To ensure changes have not introduced new defects
B) To test the system's performance
C) To verify security of the application
D) To execute exploratory tests
Explanation: Regression testing is performed to verify that recent code changes have not adversely affected the existing functionality.
Question 24: What is equivalence partitioning?
A) A technique for dividing input data into valid and invalid partitions
B) A method for testing database partitions
C) A technique for testing concurrent systems
D) A method for system recovery testing
Explanation: Equivalence partitioning divides input data into partitions of valid and invalid data, with one value from each partition tested.
Question 25: What is the main objective of usability testing?
A) To ensure the system is easy to use
B) To test the system's reliability
C) To validate the system's security
D) To verify performance under load
Explanation: Usability testing evaluates how user-friendly, intuitive, and efficient the system is for end users.
Question 26: What is an entry criterion in testing?
A) A condition that must be met before testing begins
B) A measure of test completion
C) A metric for performance testing
D) A step in writing test scripts
Explanation: Entry criteria define the conditions that must be met before testing activities can commence.
Question 27: What is the primary goal of acceptance testing?
A) To ensure the system meets business requirements
B) To check performance under load
C) To validate individual components
D) To test data flow across modules
Explanation: Acceptance testing ensures the system meets business needs and is ready for deployment.
Question 28: What is smoke testing?
A) A quick test to verify basic functionality
B) A technique for load testing
C) A test performed to validate usability
D) A method for testing database connectivity
Explanation: Smoke testing checks the basic functionality of an application to ensure it is stable enough for further testing.
Question 29: What is risk-based testing?
A) Testing that prioritizes tests based on risk levels
B) A method for testing security risks
C) Testing that focuses only on high-priority features
D) Testing the system’s performance under stress
Explanation: Risk-based testing involves prioritizing tests based on the likelihood and impact of potential defects.
Question 30: What is the primary goal of integration testing?
A) To test interactions between integrated components
B) To validate user interfaces
C) To perform database performance testing
D) To check code quality standards
Explanation: Integration testing verifies the interactions and data flow between integrated modules or components.
Question 31: What is the key focus of static testing?
A) Identifying defects without executing the code
B) Testing for performance bottlenecks
C) Checking system behavior under load
D) Testing database queries
Explanation: Static testing involves techniques like reviews, inspections, and walkthroughs to identify defects in documents or code without execution.
Question 32: What is the main objective of defect clustering?
A) To identify areas where most defects are concentrated
B) To group defects by severity
C) To classify defects by priority
D) To group defects by type
Explanation: Defect clustering suggests that a small number of modules in a system often contain the majority of defects, enabling testers to focus their efforts.
Question 33: What is meant by test coverage?
A) The degree to which specified testing criteria have been satisfied
B) The number of defects identified during testing
C) The amount of test data used in testing
D) The percentage of time spent on testing
Explanation: Test coverage measures the extent to which testing criteria (like code, functionality, or requirements) have been met.
Question 34: What is the purpose of decision table testing?
A) To validate combinations of inputs and their corresponding outputs
B) To measure code execution coverage
C) To perform stress testing
D) To execute exploratory testing
Explanation: Decision table testing systematically tests combinations of inputs and their expected outputs.
Question 35: What is a heuristic test strategy?
A) A flexible, experience-based approach to testing
B) A formalized testing approach with predefined test cases
C) A method for testing security vulnerabilities
D) A process for automating test execution
Explanation: Heuristic test strategies rely on testers' experience and intuition to identify potential defects.
Question 36: What is the primary advantage of risk-based testing?
A) Prioritizes tests for areas with the highest risk
B) Automates all test scenarios
C) Reduces overall testing effort
D) Focuses only on functional testing
Explanation: Risk-based testing ensures critical areas with high impact and likelihood of failure are tested first.
Question 37: What is the purpose of a traceability matrix in testing?
A) To ensure all requirements are covered by test cases
B) To prioritize test cases based on severity
C) To log defects identified during testing
D) To track testing progress
Explanation: A traceability matrix maps requirements to their corresponding test cases to ensure comprehensive testing.
Question 38: What is exploratory testing?
A) Testing based on tester's experience and intuition
B) Testing performed using pre-written scripts
C) Testing conducted to validate performance
D) Testing automated using tools
Explanation: Exploratory testing involves simultaneous learning, test design, and execution without predefined test cases.
Question 39: What is a test charter?
A) A document outlining objectives and scope for exploratory testing
B) A script for automated test execution
C) A summary of defects logged
D) A checklist for regression testing
Explanation: A test charter provides guidelines and objectives for conducting exploratory testing sessions.
Question 40: What is end-to-end testing?
A) Testing the complete workflow of a system
B) Testing individual units of code
C) Testing only external interfaces
D) Testing database migration
Explanation: End-to-end testing verifies the complete flow of a system, ensuring all components work together as expected.
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